What Is "Adultery?"
Is it only that which is against one's mate? Or is it also with another?

The following Old Testament passages show clearly that adultery involves sexual relations with another's spouse:

"And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife,
even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer
and the adulteress shall surely be put to death" (Leviticus 20:10).

"But whoso committeth adultery with a woman lacketh understanding:
he that doeth it destroyeth his own soul" (Proverbs 6:32).

"Because they have committed villany in Israel, and have committed
adultery with their neighbours' wives, and have spoken lying words in my
name, which I have not commanded them; even I know, and am a witness, saith the LORD" (Jeremiah 29:23).

The Following New Testament Passages Demonstrate The Sexual Nature Of Adultery:

1) One commits adultery in his heart by looking at a woman with lust
(unlawful desires for her) (Matthew 5:28).  This "adultery" was sexual.

2) Those "having eyes full of adultery" were in the Matthew 5:28 category (2
Peter 2:14). This "adultery" was sexual.

3) Jesus said He would cast the false prophetess Jezebel, "into a bed, and
them that commit adultery with her into great tribulation, except they
repent of their deeds" (Rev. 2:22).  This figurative use of the word
"adultery" only makes sense if one understands the literal meaning of the
word to be sexual.

4) Like Revelation 2:22, Hebrews 13:4 equates the defiling of "the
bed"(sexuality) with "adultery."  The word "adultery" in this passage is
obviously has a sexual meaning.

5) The woman who was "taken in the very act of adultery" was not taken in
the very act of divorcing her husband! (John 8:3-4).

Efforts by some to argue that adultery is only that which one commits against his spouse is pure nonsense.  These deceivers rely upon the wording of Mark 10:11 to make their argument. They assume that just because Jesus said the adultery was "against" the present mate, that it can't involve an ongoing sexual relationship with someone else.  Why would they want to prove such a position?  Simply to allow fellowship with those who are in, what the Bible calls, an unlawful relationship (Mark 6:17).  According to this theory, repentance does not require separation from the new mate, it only requires an apology for the unscriptural divorce and a committment to not divorce again.  This would be comparable to a bank robber "repenting" of his sin, but keeping the stolen money!

Repentance & 1 Corinthians 6:9-11
What did each one do?
Repentance demanded that the sinner stop practicing whatever sin it was that they were practicing!  Neither repentance or baptism constitute a license to continue in sin (Romans 6:1-2; 1 John 3:6-9).


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